Suppose a large Australian multinational has two subsidiaries – one in Australia and one in China. The Australian subsidiary internally purchases intermediate goods from the Chinese subsidiary and sells the final goods in the Australian market. As of now, both subsidiaries are making substantial profits, and the marginal tax rates are 20% in China and 35% in Australia. Which of the following statements is true?单项选择题

A
a. The multinational as a conglomerate would gain from increasing the internal price of intermediate goods sold by its Chinese subsidiary.
B
b. The multinational as a conglomerate would gain from decreasing the internal price of intermediate goods sold by its Chinese subsidiary.
C
c. There is no advantage to changing the internal price of intermediate goods since the price of the final goods is the same.
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类似问题
A transfer pricing structure that considers the opportunity costs of selling to internal rather than external customers uses ________.
A transfer pricing arrangement that uses the price that would be charged to an external customer is a ________.
Question1.3 Sweet Syrup has two divisions: the Syrup division and the Dessert division. The Syrup division has the capacity to produce 1,200 litres per month. It currently sells 900 litres of syrup to external customers every month at $15 per litre. The variable cost of producing one litre of syrup is $5, and its monthly fixed cost is $12,000 per month. The Dessert division has recently decided to produce a new type of dessert, vanilla creme, which requires 600 litres of syrup.Using the general transfer price rule, what is the appropriate transfer price of one litre of syrup if the Syrup division agrees to sell the required amount of syrup internally to the Dessert division? $15 $20 $5 $25 $10 ResetMaximum marks: 1 Flag question undefined
Question1.2 Which of the following statements about a negotiated approach to setting a transfer price is correct? This approach is inappropriate if the selling division has excess capacity. This approach should not be used because it reduces managerial autonomy. This approach always leads to price that results in a sub-optimal outcome for the firm. This approach is not viable if there is an active external market. A transfer price set using this approach often varies depending on the negotiation skills of the negotiating managers of both the selling division and the buying division. ResetMaximum marks: 1 Flag question undefined
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