Which of the following is the best harmonization for a ^3–^3–^2–^2–^1 melody?

Question

BlackTom AI · Accepted Answer

Melody scale-degree sequence 3–3–2–2–1 corresponds to soprano notes mi, mi, re, re, do (in a major key). The harmonization must supply chords whose chord tones include these scale degrees, maintain sensible bass motion, and follow good voice-leading and cadential practice.

1) Relevant concepts
- Chord tones: each melody note should be a chord tone (or prepared non-chord tone) of the harmonization at that moment.
- Inversions: using first inversion (6) allows the soprano to remain the same while the bass moves, avoiding doubled leading tones or empty parallels.
- Voice-leading and bass line: prefer smooth stepwise or small leap motion and a clear harmonic goal (tonic arrival).

2) Step-by-step reasoning
- First melody note = 3 (mi). A tonic triad I (1–3–5) contains 3 as the third, so I fits well on the first 3.
- The second note repeats 3. To provide bass motion while keeping the soprano on mi, change to I6 (first inversion of I). I6 still contains mi (now possibly in bass or inner voice), so the soprano is a chord tone and the bass moves from 1 to 3 (C to E in C major) for interest.
- The third melody note = 2 (re). The dominant V (5–7–2 in scale-degree terms) contains 2 as its fifth (e.g., G–B–D in C major), so V is a strong choice to harmonize the first occurrence of re, giving a dominant sonority.
- The fourth note repeats 2. Moving to ii6 (first inversion of the supertonic) keeps re as a chord tone while providing a smooth stepwise bass motion (G to F in C major). ii6 functions well as a neighbor/passing predominant that prepares the final tonic.
- The final note = 1 (do). Return to I completes the phrase with a clear tonic resolution.

3) Intermediate mapping (in C major for illustration)
- Melodic 3 → I (C–E–G)
- Melodic 3 → I6 (E–G–C)
- Melodic 2 → V (G–B–D)
- Melodic 2 → ii6 (F–A–D)
- Melodic 1 → I (C–E–G)

4) Why this answer is correct
Every soprano note is a chord tone at its moment; inversions are used to produce smooth bass motion and avoid awkward doubling; the progression I–I6–V–ii6–I gives clear harmonic interest and resolves to tonic.

5) Why other options are incorrect
- I–I6–V7–ii–IV: ends on IV, not a tonic cadence; fails to close the phrase.
- I–I6–ii6–V–I: while plausible, placing ii6 before V changes the harmonic emphasis and is less idiomatic for the given melodic placement of the repeated re; it also alters the smoother bass step suggested by V→ii6→I here.
- I–I6–V7–V–IV: repeats dominant and again ends on IV, so it does not provide a proper tonic closure and is harmonically weak.

6) Conclusion
The best harmonization is I–I6–V–ii6–I, which matches the provided correct answer.

Which of the following is the best harmonization for a ^3–^3–^2–^2–^1 melody? 单项选择题

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