A 55-year-old woman recently underwent a PET/CT scan that showed highfludeoxyglucose (¹⁸F-FDG) uptake in the right lung, suggesting possible malignancy. However, her blood-based liquid biopsy revealed no circulating tumor DNA (ctDNA) mutations associated with lung cancer. The oncologist is considering next-generation sequencing (NGS) for further analysis. Which of the following best explains this discordant finding and justifies the oncologist’s next step?单项选择题
A
a) The absence of ctDNA mutations confirms there is no tumor, so no further testing is needed.
B
b) PET scans directly detect gene mutations through radioactive tracers, so NGS would be redundant.
C
c) PET scans measure glucose metabolism, so high uptake may reflect inflammation or infection rather than malignancy; NGS can confirm if tumor-specific mutations exist.
D
d) Liquid biopsies are always more accurate than imaging; repeating the PET scan would provide genetic confirmation.
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