Which of the following statements regarding a firm’s pretax cost of debt is accurate?

Question

BlackTom AI · Accepted Answer

Question: Which of the following statements regarding a firm’s pretax cost of debt is accurate?

Option 1: 'It is based on the original yield to maturity on the latest bonds issued by a company.' This is not correct because the pretax cost of debt reflects the current borrowing costs, not the historical yield at issuance. Using the original YTM would ignore changes in credit risk, interest rates, and market conditions since issuance.

Option 2: 'It must be estimated as it cannot be directly observed in the market.' In principle, the cost of debt for existing debt can be inferred from market data (e.g., the yields on the company’s current bonds or credit spreads). It is observable through market prices and yields, so this statement is misleading.

Option 3: 'It is equivalent to the average current yield on all of a company's outstanding bonds.' The pretax cost of debt is not simply the average current yield. Current yield ignores the present value of principal repayments and does not account for the coupon vs. market price dynamics across once-issued debt. A true measure typically uses YTM on the debt, which reflects both coupon payments and the difference between price and face value.

Option 4: 'It is equal to the coupon rate on the latest bonds issued by the company.' The coupon rate is fixed at issuance and does not reflect the present market cost of debt. The cost of debt for decision-making uses the market-required return (YTM) on outstanding debt, not the coupon rate of new issues alone.

Option 5: 'It is based on the current yield to maturity of the company's outstanding bonds.' This statement aligns with standard practice: the pretax cost of debt is estimated from the market-required return on existing debt, which is captured by the current yield to maturity of the company’s outstanding bonds, reflecting coupon payments, price, and time to maturity. This approach accounts for market conditions and credit risk as of the valuation date.

In summary, options 1, 2, 3, and 4 misstate how the pretax cost of debt is determined, either by referencing historical figures, assuming non-observability, relying on an imperfect average, or tying costs to coupon rates rather than market yields. Option 5 correctly identifies the market-based YTM on outstanding debt as the appropriate measure for pretax cost of debt.

Which of the following statements regarding a firm’s pretax cost of debt is accurate?单项选择题

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